No, that is not exactly true. In fact, its the reverse. If a person is found guilty of criminal assault, then the civil assaulthas basically been proven. However, many times when civil assault issued for, it is often charged as a negligent assault so theassaulter's insurance company will pick up coverage and payon the claim. Whereas, when it is a purposeful criminal assault, it can't be negligentunless it is charged that way criminally and then the insurance company is off the hook for coverage on the claim. Either way, if the civil assault is charged, and then the criminal assault is proven and the person is convicted, it doesn't let him/her off the hook for the civil claim against him/her.
Answered on Oct 06th, 2011 at 10:02 PM